Q1. A citizen of United Kingdom in India would enjoy all of the below Fundamental Rights except:
a) Right to Life & Personal Liberty under Article 21
b) Protection against arrests and detention in certain cases under Article 22
c) Right of minorities to establish and administer educational institutions.
d) Right to elementary education under Article 21A

Q2. Which of the following acts and regulations, can be considered as implementing provisions of the part IV of Constitution in letter and spirit?
1. Providing universal health care
2. Allocation of Coal Blocks to Private Players
3. Imposing taxes on sale of alcohol
4. National Food Security Act
Select the correct answer using the codes below:-
a) 1, 2 & 4 only
b) 1, 3 & 4 only
c) 1 & 4 only
d) 1, 2, 3 & 4

Q3. Consider the following statements
1. A resolution is a proposal eliciting the opinion of the House on a matter of grave public importance.
2. A motion is a procedural means to initiate a discussion on any matter of general public interest.
3. All resolutions are motions, but not all motions are resolutions.
Select the correct answer using the codes below:-
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

Q4. Consider the following statements with respect to elections of members of the Rajya Sabha
1. Residency or domicile in a state is a mandatory requirement to be elected as Rajya Sabha member of
that State
2. Elections to members of Rajya Sabha is done by a secret ballot by means of a proportional
representation system
Select the correct statements from the codes given below
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both I & 2
d) None of the above.

Q5. Which of the following statements are true with reference to Lok Adalats ?
1. Lok Adalats can deal with both civil and criminal Cases
2. Decisions of Lok Adalats are binding on the parties and cannot be challenged in higher Courts
3. Lok Adalats are monitored by the respective High Courts of the state concerned
Select the correct statements from the codes given below
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) 1 and 2 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

Q6. The power to create new benches of Supreme Court is vested with the
a) Government of India
b) President of India
c) Chief Justice of India
d) Parliament of India

Q7. With reference to the Attorney General of India, which of the above statements are correct?
1. Attorney General, in personal capacity, can defend an accused against the state.
2. The Attorney General of India has a right to participate in the Parliament as well as its committees of which he is named a member.
3. Attorney General of India cannot vote in the Parliament, but can do so in a Parliamentary Committee.
4. The Prime Minister of India can seek legal advice from the Attorney General through the Prime Minister’s Office.
Select the correct statements from the codes given below
a) 2 only
b) 2 and 4 only
c) 1, 2 and 3 only
d) 2, 3 and 4 only

Q8. What happens when a pre Constitutional law is inconsistent with one or more Fundamental Rights
enshrined in the Constitution?
a) The law becomes null and void
b) The law ceases to exist
c) The law is eclipsed and goes into dormancy
d) The law becomes challengeable in a court of Law

Q 9. Which of the following statements is/are INCORRECT?
1. The Constitution provides for at least 33% reservation for women in Panchayats to increase women participation at grassroot level.
2. It was the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act which introduced Panchayati Raj system in India.
3. States can, by legislation, provide reservation beyond 33% for women in Panchayati Raj bodies.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3 only

Q10 . 100th Constitutional Amendment Act is concerned with
a) implementing Goods and Services Tax
b) giving effect to an agreement to exchange territories between India and Bangladesh
c) extending reservation for Scheduled castes and scheduled tribes for another ten years.
d) setting up a National Judicial Appointments Commission